Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 00:03
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
How do you emotionally react to when others seem to feel sorry for you?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do narcissists devour so much sugar (candy, ice cream, donuts, etc., in huge amounts at a time)?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.